Download PDF A dictionary of Jewish Palestinian Aramaic of the Byzantine period

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Obviously this is not the sibling of Jesus because his father is Zebedee. Mt tells us:. This James is the son of some guy named Alphaeus. Who was Mary married to, Alphaeus or Joseph???

Biblical Languages: Aramaic Resources

Obviously Paul is using the word adelphos to denote a relationship other than a sibling son of the same parent. In Matthew Jesus says to the Apostles:. There the word brethren is the Greek adelphos but obviously all the Apostles did not come from the same family so how could they be sibling brothers?

Again in Mt Jesus calls all of the Apostles his brothers:. Of course not.

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We see the same use of the Greek adelphos in Luke as well as John and John So obviously adelphos was not restricted to mean a sibling brother and to do so is terrible exogesis. Let's see shall we? In fact this is one of the two brothers that Jesus called the "sons of thunder". Let's see.

Abbreviations in: Jewish Aramaic Poetry from Late Antiquity

Who was Mary married to, Alphaeus or Joseph?????? In Matthew's gospel we see another use of the word adelphos. They can't. Again the word brethern is the translation of the Greek adelphos but were all the Apostles Jesus' siblings? Why would you consider "uncle's son" a circumlocution rather than a simple Semitic bound form?


See e. And note that the Masoretes even hyphenate the term. It seems to me this is the typical way of referring to a genitive relationship in a Semitic language, rather than the sort of extreme oddity it is made out to be by Jimmy Akin. I agree that although Sokoloff's sources are late say 4th - 6th cen. As for the Syriac Sokoloff cites in Payne Smith p. These would constitute older examples of what to do with the word "cousin" in an Aramaic dialect when one is trying to translate the term from Hebrew.

And of course the assertion I'm trying to test in the OP didn't specify the type of Aramaic. I also think you're right that to throw these citations out entirely would be like saying there that there is no visible relationship between Shakespearean English and English today. While the language has changed and arguably English much faster now than we might expect Aramaic to have changed then it's not unrelated. See post There's almost nothing period from the first century, so this makes the assertion I'm trying to test equally problematic.

There are example from later texts. Scholars vastly more educated and experienced than you or I or anyone here have, over centuries, determined this issue. I don't know about you, but I've actually done quite a bit of university study in Aramaic Imperial and Rabbinic and Syriac. I'd like to see the names of these scholars who are "vastly more educated.

I'm glad you agree that the CA premise is pretty illogical. There's quite a bit of difference between words used to describe common human relationships and "trolls. The Hebrew scribes copied the texts exactly as originally written from centuries before Christ. There are many copies of texts that were written in the first Century and before and, dispite enormous efforts to do so, no competent scholar has been able to produce evidence of such word at that period of time.

Wait a minute here.

Supplementary Information

Can anyone here tell me just how does one go about proving that a word does not exist? Seems to me the ball is in the court of those who claim there is such a word. If so then what is it? In the New Testament the Greek word adelphos was used to designate relationships beyond that of sibling brothers. Jesus calls the Apostles Peter's brothers in Luke Again, in Mt , Jesus calls the Apostles his brothers.

We see the same use of the Greek adelphos in Mark as well as John and John Clearly all of the gospel writers did not use the word adelphos in a strict literal meaning of a sibling brother. Rather it encompassed a wide range of meanings. Therefore to force a strict meaning onto the word is bad exegesis.

Yes, this is exactly the point of the OP—that Fr. Serra is making a claim that he probably cannot support. Actually, no. Under the rules of debate, those making the assertion are required to support them with their own evidence. But no matter. He gleans these from Midrashic sources and the Peshitta as has already been noted and discussed in other posts.

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It seems pretty clear to me that everything presented in this thread shows that there is no Aramaic word for cousin. I think the onus is on whoever thinks there is a word for them to put up some supporting evidence.

Canaan (Biblical Israel): Aramaic Language

I have not seen anything yet which would remotely suggest there is a word. So what's your objection with the information presented in the dictionary? A Dictionary of Jewish Palestinian Aramaic of the Since the Middle Ages, lexographies of Talmudic and other rabbinic literature have combined in one entry Babylonian, Palestinian, and Targumic words from various periods. Because morphologically identical words in even closely related dialects can frequently differ in both meaning and nuance, their consolidation into one dictionary entry is often misleading.

Scholars now realize the need to treat each dialect separately, and in A Dictionary of Jewish Palestinian Aramaic, Michael Sokoloff provides a complete lexicon of the dialect spoken and written by Jews in Palestine during the Byzantine period, from the third century C. Sokoloff draws on a wide range of sources, from inscriptions discovered in the remains of synagogues and on amulets, fragments of letters and other documents, poems, and marginal notations to local Targumim, the Palestinian Midrashim and Talmud, texts addressing religious law halacha , and Palestinian marriage documents ketubbot from the Arabic period.